pelvic surgery
Posted: Sun Sep 04, 2011 7:47 pm
Preparing my disability application I came across a post-op report from 2007 during which my gyneocological surgeon (in the second of three laparascopies) removed endometriosis nodules and adhesions in my pelvic cavity. Part of his report reads:
"There were extensive amounts of small and large bowel plastered to the anterior abdominal wall as well as the omentum from her previous surgery. This was taken down by sharp dissection. . . . There were extensive adhesions in the cul-de-sac and areas of endometriosis. All the adhesions were lysed; right ovariolysis, left ovariolysis, salpingholysis bilaterally was carried out, release of the ureter on the left side, and resection of the left uterosacral ligament. A large nodular disease was ressected on the posterior aspect of the uterus and cervix . . ."
Here is the part I'm concerned about:
"We then placed the dissected areas of the omentum and the transverse colon and plicated this to the falciform ligament to prevent postoperative reformation of the anterior abdominal wall adhesions."
Does this raise any red flags for anybody? Could it partially explain the development of PN symptoms about two years later?
Thank you for your assistance.
"There were extensive amounts of small and large bowel plastered to the anterior abdominal wall as well as the omentum from her previous surgery. This was taken down by sharp dissection. . . . There were extensive adhesions in the cul-de-sac and areas of endometriosis. All the adhesions were lysed; right ovariolysis, left ovariolysis, salpingholysis bilaterally was carried out, release of the ureter on the left side, and resection of the left uterosacral ligament. A large nodular disease was ressected on the posterior aspect of the uterus and cervix . . ."
Here is the part I'm concerned about:
"We then placed the dissected areas of the omentum and the transverse colon and plicated this to the falciform ligament to prevent postoperative reformation of the anterior abdominal wall adhesions."
Does this raise any red flags for anybody? Could it partially explain the development of PN symptoms about two years later?
Thank you for your assistance.